terpkristin
06-22-2005, 08:25 PM
I suppose this is a question for legal buffs, legal history buffs, and/or lawyers, and/or doctors if they have any knowledge of it...
Why is it that medical malpractice suits and medical negligence suits require some permanent injury to even be considered a legal problem?
Here's the background.
Last summer, I had my 8th surgery in a period of 2 years, 11 months. Based on all of these surgeries, I knew going into number 8 that I have a severe sensitivity to the drug Versed. Thus, on every surgery I've had since January 2003, I've put "Versed" in the list of things I'm allergic to. Until last June (surgery #8), this was not a problem.
However, in surgery #8, two things "abnormal" happened:
The first is that the anesthesiologist didn't come and talk to me prior to the surgery. That is just odd as all hell in my experience, I'm used to talking with the anesthesiologist, getting to know the plan, and I always verbally communicate with them my Versed problem. Since I did not talk to the anesthesiologist, I made sure every nurse who talked to me knew, and even saw "ALLERGIC TO VERSED" written in big red letters on the top of my chart.
The second is that apparently the anesthesiologist didn't bother to look at my chart and in fact gave me Versed. Things were "ok" until after the surgery when I wasn't waking up and my sats were dropping. My parents noticed it, as did the PACU nurse: I was supposed to start waking up 30 minutes or so after leaving the O.R; an hour later, I was still not responding and sats were plummeting. So the PACU nurse called in the on-call anesthesiologist (apparently the guy that did my surgery had already left for the day) and the guy immediately noticed that I'd been given Versed when I shouldn't have been. He administered the counter-acting drug and eventually I started coming around and things improved...
Unfortunately, though, as a result, what was supposed to be outpatient day surgery required me to stay overnight for observation and to make sure I continued to improve.
Now, I'm an otherwise healthy 25 year old, in pretty good shape and an athlete. I assume my body handled the oxygen shortage the same way it did if I were working out: it coped, and in the end I suffered no long term damage.
We still opted to file a claim (demand?) with a lawyer, who outright said we didn't have much of a case. I mean, sure the pre-op paperwork and chart copies clearly show that I had a known problem with Versed, that I was given Versed, and that the anesthesiologist on-call noticed it and administered the counter-drug. But the paperwork from the first anesthesiologist has something where he's signed off that he spoke with me (he did not). At this point, that aspect is a he-said/she-said, but the fact remains he gave me a drug I shouldn't have been given.
Why is it, that even though it's obvious through the paperwork that this guy messed up, that he's not even going to get a slap on the wrists? SOMETHING should come of this. I shouldn't have had to stay overnight (my insurance covered it, for beter or worse), and my parents shouldn't have had to deal with the stress of knowing that the idiot gave me something that was a known problem and that there might be more wrong (the post-op anesthesiologist kept them quite well-informed that I was given a drug that it said I shouldn't have been given).
So, I'm calling my lawyer tomorrow and really don't expect to get anything. I think we asked for 12.5k, for suffering caused by negligence. But why is it that because I'm a doctor's dream patient (in terms of health and fitness aside from my ankle) that this guy, who quite obviously screwed the pooch, won't suffer any repercussion fom it?
Is there ANY way to get this written up, at least on his "permanent record" or something? ESPECIALLY if we don't get anything out of it, it just doesn't seem right that he should suffer nothing..
Sorry for the long-windedness...
/tk
Why is it that medical malpractice suits and medical negligence suits require some permanent injury to even be considered a legal problem?
Here's the background.
Last summer, I had my 8th surgery in a period of 2 years, 11 months. Based on all of these surgeries, I knew going into number 8 that I have a severe sensitivity to the drug Versed. Thus, on every surgery I've had since January 2003, I've put "Versed" in the list of things I'm allergic to. Until last June (surgery #8), this was not a problem.
However, in surgery #8, two things "abnormal" happened:
The first is that the anesthesiologist didn't come and talk to me prior to the surgery. That is just odd as all hell in my experience, I'm used to talking with the anesthesiologist, getting to know the plan, and I always verbally communicate with them my Versed problem. Since I did not talk to the anesthesiologist, I made sure every nurse who talked to me knew, and even saw "ALLERGIC TO VERSED" written in big red letters on the top of my chart.
The second is that apparently the anesthesiologist didn't bother to look at my chart and in fact gave me Versed. Things were "ok" until after the surgery when I wasn't waking up and my sats were dropping. My parents noticed it, as did the PACU nurse: I was supposed to start waking up 30 minutes or so after leaving the O.R; an hour later, I was still not responding and sats were plummeting. So the PACU nurse called in the on-call anesthesiologist (apparently the guy that did my surgery had already left for the day) and the guy immediately noticed that I'd been given Versed when I shouldn't have been. He administered the counter-acting drug and eventually I started coming around and things improved...
Unfortunately, though, as a result, what was supposed to be outpatient day surgery required me to stay overnight for observation and to make sure I continued to improve.
Now, I'm an otherwise healthy 25 year old, in pretty good shape and an athlete. I assume my body handled the oxygen shortage the same way it did if I were working out: it coped, and in the end I suffered no long term damage.
We still opted to file a claim (demand?) with a lawyer, who outright said we didn't have much of a case. I mean, sure the pre-op paperwork and chart copies clearly show that I had a known problem with Versed, that I was given Versed, and that the anesthesiologist on-call noticed it and administered the counter-drug. But the paperwork from the first anesthesiologist has something where he's signed off that he spoke with me (he did not). At this point, that aspect is a he-said/she-said, but the fact remains he gave me a drug I shouldn't have been given.
Why is it, that even though it's obvious through the paperwork that this guy messed up, that he's not even going to get a slap on the wrists? SOMETHING should come of this. I shouldn't have had to stay overnight (my insurance covered it, for beter or worse), and my parents shouldn't have had to deal with the stress of knowing that the idiot gave me something that was a known problem and that there might be more wrong (the post-op anesthesiologist kept them quite well-informed that I was given a drug that it said I shouldn't have been given).
So, I'm calling my lawyer tomorrow and really don't expect to get anything. I think we asked for 12.5k, for suffering caused by negligence. But why is it that because I'm a doctor's dream patient (in terms of health and fitness aside from my ankle) that this guy, who quite obviously screwed the pooch, won't suffer any repercussion fom it?
Is there ANY way to get this written up, at least on his "permanent record" or something? ESPECIALLY if we don't get anything out of it, it just doesn't seem right that he should suffer nothing..
Sorry for the long-windedness...
/tk